As part of an optimal control problem (see linked problem), I need the polar form of the equations of motion (EOM) defining the orbit of a spacecraft. In e.g. Bryson and Ho (1969) and Vallado (2007) the following EOM are presented:
$$\dot{r}=v_r$$ $$\dot{\theta}=\frac{v_{\theta}}{r}$$ $$\dot{v}_r=\frac{v_{\theta}^2}{r}-\frac{\mu}{r^2}+\frac{T\sin{\beta}}{m_0-|\dot{m}|t}$$ $$\dot{v}_{\theta}=-\frac{v_{r}v_{\theta}}{r}+\frac{T\cos{\beta}}{m_0-|\dot{m}|t}$$
where $r$ is the radial distance of the spacecraft from the attracting center, $v_r$ is the radial-velocity component, $v_{\theta}$ is the tangential/transverse-velocity component, $\mu$ is the gravitational constant of the attracting center, $T$ is thrust (constant), $\beta$ is the in-plane control angle (measured from the local horizontal to the thrust vector), $m$ is the mass of the spacecraft and:
$$\dot{m}=-\frac{T}{I_{sp}g_0}$$
is the (constant) fuel consumption rate or mass flow rate in $kg/s$, with $I_{sp}$ being the (constant) specific impulse and $g_0$ the standard gravity (Earth).
Unfortunately the full derivations for the latter two equations, radial ($\dot{v}_{r}$) and tangential acceleration ($\dot{v}_{\theta}$), are not given. I don't necessarily need these derivations for my calculations, but I just like to know how they were done.
The equation for the radial acceleration ($\dot{v}_{r}$) can be derived by starting with:
$$\ddot{r}-r\dot{\theta}^2=-\frac{\mu}{r^2}+\frac{T\sin{\beta}}{m_0-|\dot{m}|t}$$
However for the derivation of the equation for tangential acceleration ($\dot{v}_{\theta}$), I'm not completely sure where to start. Probably with:
$$r\ddot{\theta}+2\dot{r}\dot{\theta}=\frac{T\cos{\beta}}{m_0-|\dot{m}|t}$$
Is this correct or am I missing a term? Does anyone have an idea how derive the equation for $\dot{v}_{\theta}$ as stated at the top of this post?
Thanks!
Extra edit: Maybe the product rule offers a solution here?
$$[r\dot{\theta}]^{'}=\dot{r}\dot{\theta}+r\ddot{\theta}$$ $$r\ddot{\theta}=[r\dot{\theta}]^{'}-\dot{r}\dot{\theta}$$ $$r\ddot{\theta}=[v_{\theta}]^{'}-\dot{r}\dot{\theta}$$ $$r\ddot{\theta}=\dot{v}_{\theta}-\dot{r}\dot{\theta}$$
Substituting this in the equation above would yield the same result presented in the literature. But if this is true, can someone explain me why $r\ddot{\theta}\neq\dot{v}_{\theta}$ (see e.g. Wikipedia)?